Serial Crack [REPACK] Neat Image 73

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TORONTO – Another day, another deflating federal political result – this time in Alberta where voters chose the federal Conservatives and Andrew Scheer to take over the reins of power in Ottawa.

The Liberals, who have been the government’s minority party in this province since the 2015 election, took just 5.2 per cent of the vote, a stark drop from 2015.

“Tonight is the most shocking thing since Justin Trudeau was elected for the first time,” said Green Party Leader Elizabeth May, referring to the now-prime minister’s first election win in 2015.

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Scheer and the Conservatives had been in an uphill battle in Alberta since 2015, but the Liberals’ loss in that province on Thursday comes as a tough blow to Trudeau and his team.

The loss has also led some Liberal supporters to publicly express their frustration and disappointment over the party’s campaign, with one Liberal spokesperson posting a lengthy statement on Twitter on Friday.

READ MORE: Scheer scores a tie after tense, historic federal election call

In a statement released Friday, the person who wrote the post said they were disappointed that the Liberals had failed to regain any of the seats they lost in 2015 in Alberta.

“This is also a huge hit to the Liberal brand in Alberta, which is something we’ve just been unable to catch. It wasn’t good enough,” they said. Tweet This

On the campaign trail Wednesday, Trudeau said he was “disappointed” that Scheer’s Conservatives had won the election, saying it was a loss for Canadians.

“We’re in a race to change the tone in this country and I’m saddened that a lot of Canadians that are looking for better were discouraged by the tone of this election,” Trudeau told reporters.

READ MORE: Kinder Morgan: No decision to buy Trans Mountain

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The $f$ function in this triangle satisfies $f”(x)=f(x)$ and $f(0)=0$.

Let $f:[0,\infty)\to \Bbb R$ be a $C^1$-function. We assume that $f”(x)=f(x)$ and that $f(0)=0$. Then $f$ is linear or constant or $f(x)=0$ for all $x\in [0,\infty)$.
This is a question from the book of Walter Rudin “Principles of Mathematical Analysis”. I checked the previous results of the book and couldn’t find a hint or a solution.
Thanks for any help.


If $f$ is of class $C^1$ and $f’=f$ then $f(0) = 0$
(Cf. e.g. the ODE in Wikipedia)
If $f$ is of class $C^2$ and $f’ = f$ then $f(0)=0$
Thus $f$ is constant.

* Copyright (C) 2006-2020 Istituto Italiano di Tecnologia (IIT)
* All rights reserved.
* This software may be modified and distributed under the terms of the
* BSD-3-Clause license. See the accompanying LICENSE file for details.

#ifndef YARP_ROSMSG_trajopt_CAMERA
#define YARP_ROSMSG_trajopt_CAMERA


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